Was the goal offside( Iran vs Spain)?

[keyvan_pars]

sad dar sad gol bood hagh e IR ro khordan ... mese hamisheh

 

[khodam]

Guys, I mean there is a biased and then there is us! comeon ! that was 1000000000% offside,

look at the video posted above, 0:46 ! clearly offside.

What bias? It's only offside if Sardar touched the ball, for which we have no visual confirmation. See 1:15 here:

Number 19 is in offside but he has no role in the play though one can argue he was close enough to have a role. The handball is another issue and more justifiable. But in any case this was too close to be called on the field at a time when you have VAR. They should have let the goal stand and then reviewed by VAR, in which case I think it would have remained a goal.

 

[khodam]

Not if Morocco beats Spain. We would only need a tie against Portugal

Which is why I said "in all likelihood", because Morocco beating Spain isn't likely. Of course, now that I said it, they will beat Spain

 

[Fatso]

Either way the refs couldn't be 100% sure. Not even video truly showed it. It should have stood.
If Spain had scored like that, refs would have accepted it.

 

[khodam]

Either way the refs couldn't be 100% sure. Not even video truly showed it. It should have stood.
If Spain had scored like that, refs would have accepted it.

Exactly. I thought the idea of VAR was to leave borderline decisions to the video, which they didn't do this time.

 

[Payandeh Iran]

What bias? It's only offside if Sardar touched the ball, for which we have no visual confirmation. See 1:15 here:

Number 19 is in offside but he has no role in the play though one can argue he was close enough to have a role. The handball is another issue and more justifiable. But in any case this was too close to be called on the field at a time when you have VAR. They should have let the goal stand and then reviewed by VAR, in which case I think it would have remained a goal.

Why should it have stood and then ruled out? Assistant Ref flagged it offside (correct or incorrect) and refs VERY RARELY challenge their assistants on offside calls so he called it off but to be sure he did VAR. To him it looked like Sardar touched it (maybe he didn't) but he made the call as offside. Now what would he have done if it was for Spain? No idea.

 

[Pooya]

What bias? It's only offside if Sardar touched the ball, for which we have no visual confirmation. See 1:15 here:

Number 19 is in offside but he has no role in the play though one can argue he was close enough to have a role. The handball is another issue and more justifiable. But in any case this was too close to be called on the field at a time when you have VAR. They should have let the goal stand and then reviewed by VAR, in which case I think it would have remained a goal.

I personally think Sardar did touch the ball. as you said 19 is also offside when ball is coming in, and because he is very close , he does play a role and more importantly, he is involved in the play, so that is offiside as well. Overall, we can agree to disagree, it was a correct call in my opinion.

We played a good game, we game Spain hard time. Let us hold our head high and be proud of our team instead of finding other things to blame .