Every time I read something about Omidyar, I notice that he is referred to as a “Frenchman”. It is true that he was born in France, but his parents were born and raised in Iran, and they both migrated to France when they were adults. Had Omidyar been a terrorist, without any doubt he would have been referred to as an Iranian. But, since he is one of the most successful and richest men in the world, his Iranian roots are totally ignored. Besides, in France, they do not consider third or forth generation middle easterns as French. So why is it that when a person like Omidyar who has tremendous Iranian roots and is highly successful is one of them? But if he messes up, he is one of us?
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